Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 02:59
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What are the pros and cons of a prospective bride/groom not having any siblings?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do I sweat so much after applying moisture or sun screen on my face? I have normal skin.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.